Thank you for subscribing to Annotated Thomist...check back each day for a new section of St. Thomas' corpus, annotated and summarized. (FREE TRIAL FOR NEW SUBSCRIBERS!!!)
AT is also available to donors of $10 or more on Patreon or SubscribeStar along with all of the other benefits (daily bonus videos, bonus articles, PDFs, etc.
If you need more personalized help reading the Summa, I am available for 1-on-1 sessions, here.
There is great controversy surrounding this question, thus, the explanation must be more involved than that given by St. Thomas here.
First, as to the argument given for the affirmative answer, St. Thomas' argument is basically that:
Major: It is impossible for anything to fall outside the universal cause under which all particular causes are contained
Minor: The will of God is such.
ERGO, etc.
The major premise is illustrated by a comparison of efficient and formal causality. Just as a formal cause may fail to produce some particular form, yet may not fail to produce universally, so also may the efficient cause fail to produce some particular effect, but not escape the universal cause's grasp.